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A closer look at the prophecies that are supposed to refer to Jesus.

The New Testament claims that many prophecies of the Hebrew scriptures are pointing forward to Jesus. Let's take a look at the most important ones. In the book "All scripture is inspired by G.d and beneficial", published by the Watchtower Bible and Tract Society of New York Inc. the most important ones are listed in the end of the book. By the way, this statement by Paul; "All scripture is given by inspiration of G.d and is profitable for doctrine, ..." (2 Tim. 3:16) that is often used to "proof" that also the New Testament is divinely inspired, refers only to the Hebrew scriptures. When Paul wrote that letter to Timothy the New Testament did not yet exist. By writing that letter he was creating a part of it, so for sure it could not have referred to the New Testament. That text is anyway useless to prove anything because it does not specify the term "all scriptures".

Back to the prophecies. The first one given in the book is "born from the tribe of Judah", giving the O.T. text Genesis 49:10, and the N.T. texts Matthew 1:2-16, Luke 3:23-33, and Hebrews 7:14. The N.T. claims here that Jesus was from the tribe of Judah. However it is a given in the law of G.d, as written down in the Torah, that the father is the determining factor in to which tribe somebody belongs. Therefore the N.T. writes in Matthew 1:16: "And Jacob begot Joseph the husband of Mary, of who is born Jesus, who is called Christ." This line of males comes from Judah. However, in verse 18 it says that Jesus was not of Joseph; she was already pregnant before they had intimate relations. The "holy ghost" is supposed to be Jesus' father. Therefore Jesus is not of the tribe of Judah.

So much for this "prophecy".

The second one says: "Descendant of David, the son of Isai." O.T. texts: Psalm 132:11, Isaiah 9:7, 11:10. N.T. texts: Matthew 1:1, Mark 10:47, Luke 1:32 and many others.

Him descending from David runs into the same problems as him descending from Judah. His father who was not his father might have been a descendant of David, but not Jesus.

Third prophecy: Born in Bethlehem. O.T. text Micah 1:2, N.T. texts Matthew 2:1, John 7:42 a.o.

Here in Micah 5 is spoken about the birth of the Messiah, and what will happen in the messianic era. It says that the one to be born in Bethlehem is to be a ruler in Israel. Was Jesus ever a ruler in Israel?

In verse 4 it is written: "And he shall stand and feed in the strength of the Lord, in the majesty of the name of the Lord his G.d, and they shall abide, for now shall he be great unto the ends of the earth." Jesus did none of these things. Please read the whole chapter of Micah 5 and realize that this can not apply to Jesus. Verse 10: "And it shall come to pass in that day (again; not thousands of years later) that I will cut of thy horses out of the midst of thee, ..." What the N.T. writers have done here is take one text, rip it completely out of its context and apply it to Jesus.

Fourth prophecy: Born out of a virgin. See chapter 1.

Fifth prophecy: Baby's killed after his birth. O.T. text Jeremiah 31:15, N.T. text Matthew 2:16-18.

Here in Jeremiah it says nowhere that after the birth of the Messiah baby's will be killed. Here is spoken about the Jewish people being led into exile, and G.d bringing them back from the land of the enemy. Again, a text ripped out of its context and applied to Jesus.

Sixth prophecy: His way prepared before him. O.T. texts: Malachi 3:1, 4:5, Isaiah 40:3. N.T. texts Matthew 3:1-3, 11:10-14, 17:10-13, Mark 1:2-4, Luke 1:17, and others.

John the Baptist is supposed to be the one that prepared the way for Jesus, as it is written in Luke 3:2-6: ".... the word of G.d came unto John the son of Zacherias in the wilderness. And he came into all the country about Jordan preaching the baptism of repentance for the remission of sins; As it is written in the book of the words of Esaias the prophet, saying, (Isaiah 40:3-5) The voice of one crying in the wilderness; Prepare ye the way of the Lord, make His paths straight. Every valley shall be filled and every mountain and hill shall be brought low, and the crooked shall be made straight and the rough ways shall be made smooth. And all flesh shall see the salvation of G.d."

Are all the valleys filled up and are all the mountains and hills brought low?

Did all flesh see the salvation of G.d?

As far as that is concerned John the Baptist does not fit the description. Or is John the Baptist also going to do this at some unspecified time thousands of years later? How much are we supposed to believe?

Malachi 4:5 says: "Behold; I send you Elijah the prophet before the coming of the great and dreadful day of the Lord." According to this text Elijah the prophet has to come before the messiah comes. The Jews and Jesus were well aware of this, therefore Jesus said that John the Baptist was the prophet Elijah, (New Testament spelling Elias) who went to heaven in a chariot of fire. See Matthew 11:11-14, and also Matthew 17:10-13; "And his disciples asked him, saying; Why then say the scribes that Elias must first come? And Jesus answered and said unto them ; Elias truly shall first come and restore all things. But I say unto you that Elias is come already, and they knew him not, but have done unto him whatever they listed. Like wise shall also the son of man suffer of them. Then the disciples understood that he spoke of John the Baptist."

However, somebody forgot to tell John the Baptist that he was the prophet Elias; John 1:19-21; "And this is the record of John, when the Jews send priests and Levites from Jerusalem to ask him; Who art thou? And he confessed and denied not, but confessed; I am not the Christ. And they asked him; What then? Art thou Elias? And he said; I am not. Art thou that prophet? And he answered; No."

Confusion all over the place.

After you read this, how can anyone take the statements of Jesus seriously?

Seventh prophecy: Called out of Egypt. O.T. text Hosea 11:1, N.T. text Matthew 2:15.

Hosea11:1; "When Israel was a child then I loved him, and out of Egypt I called my son."

Who is being spoken about here? Israel, the Jewish people, who G.d redeemed from Egypt: "I am the Lord your G.d which brought you out of the land of Egypt to be your G.d. I am the Lord your G.d." Num. 15:41

"Thus says the Lord: Israel is my firstborn son, and I say to you: let My son go, that he may serve me." Exodus 4:22

Nowhere in this whole chapter of Hosea 1 is spoken about the messiah. Again, a text ripped out of its context and applied to Jesus.

Eight prophecy: He came at the end of 69 weeks as a messiah. O.T. text Daniel 9:24-27, N.T. text Luke 3:1, + 21-22

The claim is that here in Luke Jesus was anointed. Just read those verses and see that he was not anointed with oil, like kings are to be anointed. Let's now take a look at the prophecy in Daniel:

For the full story about the seventy weeks of Daniel click here

Ninth prophecy: The spirit of God was upon him. O.T. text Isaiah 61:1-2, N.T. text Luke 4:18-21

Please read the whole chapter of Isaiah 61, and see what should have been happening here. Jesus claims in the gospel of Luke that he is the one that is spoken about in Isaiah 61. But then why did it not happen what is written in Isaiah 61:4-6; “And they shall build the old wastes, they shall raise up the former desolations

And they shall repair the waist cities, the desolations of many generations. And strangers shall stand and feed your flock, and the sons of the alien shall be your plowman and your vinedressers. But you shall be named priests of the Lord, men shall call you the ministers of our God; you shall eat the riches of the gentiles, and in their glory shall you boast yourself.” Jesus claimed that he was the one, (something that everybody can claim of course) but unfortunately, he did not deliver. But, of course, according Christianity he is going to do that when he comes for the second time. The easy part that everybody can claim is for him, and the difficult part he is going to do in an unspecified time, thousands of years later, despite the fact that he said that he was going to do that in his generation. How does this sound to you?

Can you find anything in Isaiah 61 that says that there will be a gap of at least 2000 years between verse three and four?

Tenth prophecy: He made the people in Zebulun and Naphtali see a great light. O.T. text Isaiah 9:1-2, N.T. text Matthew 4:13-16.

Please take notice of the fact that the prophet Isaiah is speaking in the past tense. Isaiah 9:2; “The people that walked in darkness have seen a great light; They that dwell in the land of the shadow of death, upon them hath the light shined.” This is something that was already history in Isaiah’s time. If despite this you want to apply this to Jesus, then read verses 3, 4 and 5 and realize that Jesus did none of these things. The same holds true for verse 6; “For unto us a child is born, unto us a son is given and the government shall be upon his shoulder; and his name shall be called Wonderful, Counselor, The mighty God, The everlasting Father, The Prince of Peace. Of the increase of his government and peace there shall be no end, upon the throne of David and upon his kingdom to order it, and to establish it with judgment and with justice from henceforth even forever.” All this is not applicable to Jesus, he never had any government upon his shoulder. Also here is spoken in the past tense; the child is born, the son is given. Practically every translation says in verse six: "His name SHALL be called etc." But it says here, plain and clear, "His name WAS called" Past tense. The Hebrew expression here is "wayikra". That is the first word in the book of Leviticus. And every Bible translation translates it there with: "called". Past tense. Exactly the same word. Isn't that weird? The exact same expression: "wayikra" is used in Genesis 1:5 "And God called the light Day". Called. Past tense. Every Bible translation I checked at the Bible Gateway, to be found here: http://bible.gospelcom.net/ agreed on the fact that it is PAST tense. But why then, in Isaiah 9, is it suddenly future tense? Simple: Past tense does not fit the Christian theology, and therefore the translators turn past tense into future. Just like that. There is only one solution for this: Go and follow a course Biblical Hebrew. It is more easy than it looks. Than your eyes will be opened and the Christian deception will stare you right in the face. Yes, I do feel sorry for the poor misguided Christians, who are being led astray by their spiritual leaders by means of rotten corrupted Bible translations. That is why I am doing my duty to be a light unto the nations and shed light on these subjects, obscured by the Christian clergy. The King James: “Of the increase of his government and peace there shall be no end,” The words that are written here in italics are in my King James also in italics. This is a smart move of the translators, because these words don’t exist in the original Hebrew text. In that place in the Hebrew text nothing is written, which makes it present tense. (The verb ‘to be’ in the present tense is seldom or never used in the in the Hebrew language; it is only used to indicate existence, hence nothing is written here.) Therefore it says there: “Of the increase of his government and peace is no end.” --- Isaiah spoke about a king that was living in his time; hence Jesus is out. The king talked about here is king Hezekiah, the son of king Achaz, who got the sign from God about the young woman who would get pregnant. The Talmud brings down that under the reign of righteous and God fearing king Hezekiah the Jewish kingdom rose to great heights, therefore he was worthy of those impressive titles.

From the fact that the little boy's name was 'God is mighty' (or mighty God, both are possible translations) and 'eternal father' the Christians learn out that the boy must be God himself. However, a name is just that: A name. A name is not a description of the bearer of the name. For instance: Buffalo Bill was not a buffalo. The indian chief Sitting Bull was not a bull. Many times in the Bible people bear names that have the word God in them, or the name of God, but this does not mean that they are God. For instance in Exodus 6:23 is spoken about a man named Elazar, that means God is a helper, or helping God. But this does not mean that the man with that name was God. Exodus 6:24; Elkanah. God acquired, or acquiring God. II Samuel 22:;19; Elchanan, God is graceful, or graceful God. These men were not God, just like the child in Isaiah 9 is not God. On top of that, the Hebrew words ‘El gibor’ here translated with ‘mighty God’ can have a different meaning. ‘El’ can mean God, but it can also mean judge or leader. In Exodus 4:16 God says to Moses that he will be for an Elohiem to his brother Aharon. (Elohiem is the long form of El) This does not mean that Moses was like a god to Aharon and that Aharon started to worship his brother, but it ment that Moses was Aharons leader. . In Exodus 21:1-6 is spoken about a slave that does not want to leave his master. His master is commanded to take him to the ‘Elohiem’. This does not mean that his master takes him for a ride to heaven and presents him to God, but from the Jewish law we know that he is brought to the court and in front of the judges he states that he does not want to leave his master and he will serve him even after the normal period of servitude. Here in Ex 21:6 the King James translates ‘Elohiem’ correctly with ‘judges’, but the Revised Standard Version translates here; “then his master shall bring him to God.” (?) So also in I saiah 9:6 the word ‘El’ does not have to mean God, it can as well mean 'leader'. Therefore there is no proof whatsoever that the child was God.

Eleventh prophecy: He spoke in parables. O.T. text Psalm 78:2, N.T. texts Matthew 13:11-13, 31-35, Mark 4 :11, 33, 34 Here in the book of Psalms David says: “I will open my mouth in a parable, I will utter dark sayings of old.” The first thing we see here is that David is talking about himself. In this whole chapter is no reference to the coming of the messiah. Again, a text ripped out of its context and applied to Jesus. (If this sentence becomes a little repetitive, don’t blame it on me; I did not write the New Testament.)

Even if this was a prophecy pointing to the messiah, (which it isn’t) then it would still prove nothing, because it can then be applied to everybody who wishes to speak in parables.

Twelfth prophecy: He took upon him our sicknesses. O.T. text Isaiah 53:4, N.T. text Matthew 8:16-17

According to Christianity, this whole chapter of Isaiah 53 and the last verses of chapter 52, from verse 13, are talking about Jesus. But this meets several problems. The prophet Isaiah is talking in the present/past tense; verse 3 and 4: “He is despised and rejected of men” “We hid as it were our faces from him, he was despised, and we esteemed him not” It goes on like this in the past tense up to verse ten. This is not the way the prophets announce future events, by saying that they already happened. The KJV says in verse 2: "For he shall grow up before him as a tender plant." Future tense. However; this is wrong. Here is absolutely positively spoken in the past tense. Compare the RSV, it gives this verse correctly in the past tense. A quick course in exegesis for confused Christians: When a prophet speaks in the past tense, then he speaks about events that happened already. This is commonly called 'History'. Prophecy is about things that are going to happen in the future. History is the opposite of prophecy. Therefore, when a prophet speaks in the past tense, he is not prophesizing. These elementary facts were well known to the people whom translated the KJV, therefore they corrupted the translation and changed past tense to future tense, so that they could squeeze in Jesus.

When the prophet Isaiah switches to the future tense, he describes events that are not applicable to Jesus; verse 10: “When thou shalt make his soul an offering for sin, he shall see his seed, he shall prolong his days,” He was not married, how is he going to see his seed?

Verse 12: “Therefore I will divide him a portion with the great, and he shall divide the spoil with the strong” This essential part he did not fulfill. Only the simple part he did, as usually; being sick, suffering, dying; the part that can apply to millions of people, and the key part is going to happen in some unknown future.

Let us now take a look about who the prophet Isaiah is really talking here. Isaiah 52:13; “Behold My servant shall deal prudently ….” The key question here is: Who is it that the prophet Isaiah calls the servant of God? We shall let the prophet Isaiah speak for himself, and please keep in mind that the name of Jacob was changed into Israel after the fight with the angel in the end of Genesis 32; Jacob is synonymous with Israel:

Isaiah 41:8: “But thou , Israel art my servant, Jacob whom I have chosen, the seed of Abraham my friend. Thou who I have taken from the ends of the earth, and called thou from the chief men thereof, and said unto thee: Thou art my servant, I have chosen thee, and not cast thee away.”

Isaiah 44:1-2; “Yet now hear, O Jacob my servant, and Israel who I have chosen. Thus said the Lord that made thee, and formed thee from the womb, which will help thee; fear not O Jacob my servant, and thou Jesurun whom I have chosen.”

Isaiah 44:21; “Remember these, O Jacob and Israel, for thou art my servant. I have formed thee, thou art my servant; O Israel thou shalt not be forgotten of me

Isaiah 45:4; “For Jacob, my servant’s sake, and Israel mine elect, I have even called thee by thy name.”

Isaiah 48:20; “The lord hath redeemed his servant Jacob.”

Isaiah 49:3; “And said unto me: Thou art my servant, O Israel, in whom I will be glorified.”

The servant that Isaiah is talking about is the people of Israel.

If you are honestly searching for the truth, then read Isaiah from say chapter 40 all the way to the end, chapter 66, and see that all the time Isaiah is speaking about the people of Israel. There is not the slightest indication that in chapter 52 verse 13 he suddenly jumps to the messiah. As a matter of fact, there is no indication whatsoever that Isaiah 53 speaks about the messiah. It does not speak about a king, it does not speak about a descendent of David or Jesse, the father of David, nowhere is the word 'messiah' used; there is no proof or indication for the messiah at all.

XXXXThe strongest proof for the servant being Israel is Isaiah 42. This is also claimed by the NT as a messianic prophecy, see Matthew 12:16-21; "And charged them that they should not make him known: That it might be fulfilled which was spoken by Esaias the prophet, saying, Behold my servant, whom I have chosen; my beloved, in whom my soul is well pleased: I will put my spirit upon him, and he shall shew judgment to the Gentiles. He shall not strive, nor cry; neither shall any man hear his voice in the streets. A bruised reed shall he not break, and smoking flax shall he not quench, till he send forth judgment unto victory. And in his name shall the Gentiles trust."

This is a quote from Isaiah 42, applied by the NT to JC. Now read here the whole chapter of Isaiah 42 and see that it speaks all the time about the servant of God, see who is that servant of God, and see that it does not speak about the messiah:

xxxx"Behold my servant, whom I uphold; mine elect, in whom my soul delighteth; I have put my spirit upon him: he shall bring forth judgment to the Gentiles. He shall not cry, nor lift up, nor cause his voice to be heard in the street. A bruised reed shall he not break, and the smoking flax shall he not quench: he shall bring forth judgment unto truth. He shall not fail nor be discouraged, till he have set judgment in the earth: and the isles shall wait for his law. Thus saith God the LORD, he that created the heavens, and stretched them out; he that spread forth the earth, and that which cometh out of it; he that giveth breath unto the people upon it, and spirit to them that walk therein: I the LORD have called thee in righteousness, and will hold thine hand, and will keep thee, and give thee for a covenant of the people, for a light of the Gentiles; To open the blind eyes, to bring out the prisoners from the prison, and them that sit in darkness out of the prison house. I am the LORD: that is my name: and my glory will I not give to another, neither my praise to graven images. Behold, the former things are come to pass, and new things do I declare: before they spring forth I tell you of them. Sing unto the LORD a new song, and his praise from the end of the earth, ye that go down to the sea, and all that is therein; the isles, and the inhabitants thereof. Let the wilderness and the cities thereof lift up their voice, the villages that Kedar doth inhabit: let the inhabitants of the rock sing, let them shout from the top of the mountains. Let them give glory unto the LORD, and declare his praise in the islands. The LORD shall go forth as a mighty man, he shall stir up jealousy like a man of war: he shall cry, yea, roar; he shall prevail against his enemies. I have long time holden my peace; I have been still, and refrained myself: now will I cry like a travailing woman; I will destroy and devour at once. I will make waste mountains and hills, and dry up all their herbs; and I will make the rivers islands, and I will dry up the pools. And I will bring the blind by a way that they knew not; I will lead them in paths that they have not known: I will make darkness light before them, and crooked things straight. These things will I do unto them, and not forsake them. They shall be turned back, they shall be greatly ashamed, that trust in graven images, that say to the molten images, Ye are our gods. Hear, ye deaf; and look, ye blind, that ye may see. Who is blind, but my servant? or deaf, as my messenger that I sent? who is blind as he that is perfect, and blind as the LORD's servant? Seeing many things, but thou observest not; opening the ears, but he heareth not. The LORD is well pleased for his righteousness' sake; he will magnify the law, and make it honourable. But this is a people robbed and spoiled; they are all of them snared in holes, and they are hid in prison houses: they are for a prey, and none delivereth; for a spoil, and none saith, Restore. Who among you will give ear to this? who will hearken and hear for the time to come? Who gave Jacob for a spoil, and Israel to the robbers? did not the LORD, he against whom we have sinned? for they would not walk in his ways, neither were they obedient unto his law. Therefore he hath poured upon him the fury of his anger, and the strength of battle: and it hath set him on fire round about, yet he knew not; and it burned him, yet he laid it not to heart."

As you see, saying JC was the servant doesn't fit very well: "Hear, ye deaf; and look, ye blind, that ye may see. Who is blind, but my servant? or deaf, as my messenger that I sent? who is blind as he that is perfect, and blind as the LORD's servant? Seeing many things, but thou observest not; opening the ears, but he heareth not."

According to the NT Jesus was not blind and deaf. Conclusion: JC is not the servant. Conclusion: The NT is based upon false premises.

It is here literally spelled out who is the servant that Isaiah talks about: "Who is blind, but my servant? or deaf, as my messenger that I sent? who is blind as he that is perfect, and blind as the LORD's servant? Seeing many things, but thou observest not; opening the ears, but he heareth not. The LORD is well pleased for his righteousness' sake; he will magnify the law, and make it honourable. But this is a people robbed and spoiled; they are all of them snared in holes, and they are hid in prison houses: they are for a prey, and none delivereth; for a spoil, and none saith, Restore. Who among you will give ear to this? who will hearken and hear for the time to come? Who gave Jacob for a spoil, and Israel to the robbers?"

Where it says "But this is a people", (some translations say: But it is a people), there it says in the original Hebrew: we-hu am bazuz. That is literally translated: "And HE is a robbed nation/people." The 'he' refers to the servant in the previous verse. The following verses identify that nation as the people of Israel: "Who gave Jacob for a spoil, and Israel to the robbers?"

When we fill in the Jewish people in Isaiah 53, everything falls into place. Isaiah 52:14; “As many were astonished at thee, his visage was so marred, more than any man, “ In Isaiah’s time the Jewish people had already been abused by many nations, see Isaiah 1:1-7; “…. Why should ye be stricken anymore? Ye will revolt more and more; the whole head is sick and the whole heart faint. From the sole of the foot even unto the head there is no soundness in it, but wounds and bruises, and putrifying sores; they have not been closed, neither bound up, neither mollified with ointment. Your country is desolate, your cities are burned with fire; your land, strangers devour it in your presence, and it is desolate, as overthrown by strangers.” Also here does the prophet Isaiah personify the people of Israel as a man who is stricken by God: From the sole of the foot up to the head covered with sores.

When we fill in the Jewish people in this text,: "But he was wounded for our transgressions, he was bruised for our iniquities, the chastisement of our peace was upon him, and with his stripes we are healed." we also have to ask: who is the 'our' and the 'we'? Here is the prophet Isaiah speaking as a part of the Jewish people. So also the 'we' points to the Jewish people. Now in stead of the metaphor, 'the servant', let's fill in the Jewish people and see what we get: But [the Jewish people] were wounded for the transgressions of [the Jewish people], [the Jewish people] were bruised for the iniquities of [the Jewish people], the chastisement of the peace of [the Jewish people] was upon [the Jewish people], and with the stripes of [the Jewish people] [the Jewish people] are healed.

Here we see that the Jewish people were punished for the sins of the Jewish people, just like in Isaiah 1:4-9. Also there are the Jewish people punished for the rebellious sins of the Jewish people. And that is what happens, when we sin we get punished, and through the punishment the sin is erased. This is a much more normal view upon sin and punishment than to think that when we sin God gets or was punished for it by being nailed to a cross. And those are the hard facts; everybody has to take his own responsibility, you cannot shove it of unto God or anybody else.

www So Isaiah 53 speaks about the people of Israel, and not about Jesus.

Thirteenth prophecy: He was zealous for the house of God. O.T. text Psalm 69:9, N.T. text Matthew 21:12-13, Mark 4:11, 33-34 and others.

Please read this Psalm and see that this has nothing to do with prophecies that point forward to the messiah. The Psalms are not prophetic writings, King David talkes here about himself.

Also verse 4 and 21 of this Psalm are used to say that it points to Jesus; 4: “They that hate me without a cause are more than the hairs of mine head.” 21: “They gave me poison for food, and for my thirst they gave me vinegar to drink.” RSV. This is supposed to point to Matthew 27:48, where Jesus is offered vinegar while hanging on the cross. But it is nowhere written that Jesus was fed poison.

Verse 4, 9 and 21 of this Psalm are presented as prophecies pointing forward to Jesus. Therefore we can presume that, according to Christianity, this whole Psalm is speaking about Jesus. But then what about verse 5? “O God, thou knowest my folly, the wrongs I have done are not hidden from Thee”

According to Christianity Jesus never did anything wrong, nor folly. So according to this reasoning this Psalm can not speak about Jesus. So what the New Testament does here, is rip a few verses out of context and say that they are prophecies that point to Jesus. But everybody who is not brainwashed by Christianity and still has some ability left to reason and think for himself can see that this is a bad joke.

This chapter is still under construction.