DID JOHN MEAN FOR US TO INTERPRET THE "WORD" AS "JESUS"?

Answer for yourself: From the prologue of John's Gospel, I have a very valid and legitimate three part question:

(a) Was not Yeshua God from the beginning?

In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. (John 1:1)

(b) Were not all things made through Yeshua?

He was in the beginning with God. All things came into being through him; and apart from him nothing came into being that has come into being. (John 1:2-3)

(c) Was not Yeshua made flesh and dwelt among us?

And the Word became flesh, and dwelt among us, and we beheld his glory, glory as of the only begotten from the Father, full of grace and truth. (John 1:14)

This three part question is so often repeated, collectively or individually, that I will try to answer them from various perspectives. For an uncomplicated comprehension, I am going to separate the three part question into three separate questions. I will deal with part (a) above:

Answer for yourself: Was not Yeshua God from the beginning? Only if you mistranslate the passage.

The verse insinuates "Yeshua was God from the beginning" because Christians have, for the last numerous generations, embraced the concept of SUBSTITUTING the word "Word" (Greek term "Logos") with "Yeshua". John did not write "Yeshua". It is a SUBSTITUTION.

One can only SUBSTITUTE (of course with admissible logic), the original term *IF* the LITERAL translation of the used term fails to reconcile with the rest of the text. Unfortunately, as you will soon discover, the situation here is the other way around.

Please read the last two lines from (a) with the SUBSTITUTION. It reads; "and Yeshua was with God and Yeshua was God."

Answer for yourself: How can Yeshua be "with" God and "was" God, as well? It defies logic.

The SUBSTITUTION creates an enigmatic dilemma to which the Christian scholars have yet to find an answer.

The norm of accepting the SUBSTITUTION has been so deep rooted that no believing Christian scholar has sincerely attempted to find out what in reality is the LITERAL translation. Let us do it together.

The Greek term "Logos" is derived from the root word "Lego" meaning "to speak". The literal translation of "Logos" is "something spoken or thought". The verification of the above translation is simple. Please pick up your English Dictionary and look for the word "Decalogue". Surprised! It reads; "The Ten Commandments": (deka=ten; logous=commands). Now please flip a few more pages of your dictionary and go to the word "Logos". Please look for the word origin. In my pocket Oxford Dictionary it reads; "[Gk, = reason, discourse, (rarely) word]."

Having discovered the LITERAL translation of the word "Logos" used by apostle John, let us read (a) again:

In the beginning was the "spoken word, command", and the "spoken word, command" was with God, and the "spoken word, command" was Divine. (John 1:1)

The LITERAL translation is not only logical but it coincides perfectly with the prologue of the Book of Genesis.

"In the beginning God created the heavens and the earth." "And God said, Let there be light; and there was light." (Genesis 1:1 and 3)

Answer for yourself: You may now ask, why did I translate "Divine" instead of "God" in the last line? The answer is based upon the usage of Greek grammar. In the second line, the phrase used by John for "God" is "ho theo", meaning "the God". In the last line it is simply "theo", the definitive article "the" is not used.

Answer for yourself: Why?

Because, it is a predicate of the subject "ho theo". The predicate is used to denote the nature, quality, attribute or property of the subject. Here the in this instance the nature of the God's spoken command was Divine.

In The New Translation of the Bible (1922) by the famous Dr. James Moffatt, it reads; "the Logos was Divine." And, also in The Complete Bible - An American Translation (Smith-Goodspeed) and The Authentic New Testament by Hugh J. Schonfield.

Paul wrote; "...if any man is preaching to you a Gospel contrary to which you received, let him be accursed (anathema)." Gal. 1:9. That means we cannot read John 1:1 and interpret that this means Yeshua! Thus "Yeshua" is not from the beginning like Yahweh who has no beginning and no end. Yeshua has a beginning and no end. This idea is the backbone of the Council of Nicea. Unfortunately, this pagan controlled synod voted against the then-current belief and tradition and forced its will upon millions. Today we have the fruit of such hypocrisy as we worship Yeshua mistakenly thinking that he is God in the vast majority of churches today. You simply cannot use John 1:1 to prove it as others have tried to do. Those ignorant of Bible facts that I have shown you have arrived, and continue to arrive at conclusions from reading only the English that cannot be supported when read in the original languages.