DIFFICULT PASSAGES TO UNDERSTAND IN THE NEW TESTAMENT: "BAPTIZING IN THE NAME OF THE FATHER, SON, AND HOLY SPIRIT"

Answer for yourself: Yeshua said; "Go therefore and make disciples of all the nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and the Son and the Holy Spirit," (Matthew 28:19); does this not prove that the 'Doctrine of Trinity' and its present day formula was communicated and promulgated by Yeshua himself?

With all due respect, we tend to disagree in view of the following compelling evidences:

• Peake's Commentary on the Bible, published since 1919, is universally welcomed and considered to be the standard reference book for the students of the Bible. Commenting on the above verse it records; "This mission is described in the language of the church and most commentators doubt that the Trinitarian formula was original at this point in Mt.'s Gospel, since the NT elsewhere does not know of such a formula and describes baptism as being performed in the name of the Lord Yeshua (e.g. Ac. 2:38, 8:16, etc.)."
• Tom Harpur, author of several bestsellers and a former professor of New Testament, writes in his book For Christ's Sake; "All but the most conservative of scholars agree that at least the latter part of this command was inserted later. The formula occurs nowhere else in the New Testament, and we know from the only evidence available (the rest of the New Testament) that the earliest Church did not baptize people using these words - baptism was "into" or "in" the name of Yeshua alone."
• The above command (authentic or otherwise) does not indicate that the three names mentioned in the formula are or were, "co-equal" in their status, as well as, were "co-eternal" in the time frame, to conform with the acknowledged "Doctrine of Trinity".
• If the Father and His Son were both in "existence" from the Day One, and no one was, a micro second before or after, and, no one was "greater or lesser" in status, than why is one called the Father and the other His begotten Son?
• Did the act of "Begetting" take place? If YES, where was the "Begotten Son" before the act? If not why call him the "Begotten Son"?

"And Peter said to them, `Repent, and let each of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins;...'" (Acts 2:38). It is most unlikely that apostle Peter would have disobeyed the specific command of Yeshua for baptizing in the three names and baptized them in the name of Yeshua as Christ, alone.

Thus, upon the best evidence upon the earliest testimonies, this 3-part formula was developed later by Greeks and Gentiles who desired to separate as much as possible with any and all Jewish institutions and traditions.