Colossians - A demonstration of the "Science of Textual Criticism"

Also known as "Eenie, Meenie, Miney, Moe"

Do we have God's infallible, inerrant, inspired words today? The Lord Jesus Christ promised that "heaven and earth shall pass away, but my words shall not pass away." Matthew 24:35.

The originals are long gone from this earth. We are left then with two possibilities. Either God has kept His promises to preserve His words somewhere on this earth to all generations, or He has failed to do so, and the best we can hope for is an endless series of conflicting approximations and contradictory guesses concerning what He probably originally inspired. We either have access to an inspired Holy Bible, or we do not.

The modern scholarly view is that the New Testament text is only 85 to 90% settled. They rarely speak of the Preservation of God's words except in a general sense that the true reading is "Out There" somewhere in all the manuscripts. This X Files mentality leads us into cloudland with no sure foundation.

Most modern bible versions reject the Traditional Text of the Greek New Testament, which has been used throughout history, and which underlies the King James Bible. They are based primarily on two Greek manuscripts, Sinaiticus and Vaticanus, which are often referred to as the oldest and best, yet these two constantly disagree with each other.

Some scholars who have adopted the Westcott-Hort theory are more honest than others in admitting where their textual theories logically lead. Let's hear from a couple of them.

F.C. Conybeare: “The ultimate New Testament text, if there ever was one that deserves to be so called, is for ever irrecoverable.”

Kirsopp Lake: “In spite of the claims of Westcott-Hort and of Von Soden, we do not know the original form of the gospels, and it is quite likely that we never shall.”

I and thousands of other Christians believe God has preserved His words and given them to us in the greatest Bible ever produced. God has providentially born witness to His approval of the King James Bible. It has no proveable errors. It was the Bible used during the great world wide missionary movement. It is the Bible of the Reformation period in England, and has stood the text of time for almost 400 years. It is the only Bible vigorously defended today as being the inerrant, inspired words of God.

In this study of Colossians, we will see how many words have been either omitted or changed in such versions as the NASB, NIV, ESV. It will become evident that Sinaiticus and Vaticanus often disagree with each other, and the bibles based on these two texts differ from each other as well. The modern versions present us with no sure words of God, but rather conflicting guesses. They fail to acknowledge the providential hand of God in preserving His words through the priesthood of believers in the King James Bible.

The conflicting readings begin in the first verse of Colossians 1:1 and continue all the way to the last Amen of 4:18.

Colossians 1:1

"Paul, and apostle of JESUS CHRIST..."

The first is a minor variation, but Jesus Christ is the reading of the Majority of all remaining Greek texts and manuscript D, Lamsa's translation of the Syriac Peshitta, Spanish Reina Valera, Italian Diodati, NKJV and the NASB.

However the NIV, ESV reverse the order and say: an apostle of CHRIST JESUS, because of the reading of Sinaiticus and Vaticanus. I have no idea why the NASB decided to reject the Sin/Vat reading here, because usually they follow one or the other.

The second variant is of a more serious nature and it is found in verse two.

Colossians 1:2

"Grace be unto you, and peace, from God our Father AND THE LORD JESUS CHRIST."

The whole phrase "and the Lord Jesus Christ" is omitted from the NASB, NIV, NWT (New World Translation of the Jehovah Witnesses) and the ESV. It is omitted by Vaticanus and D, yet the reading is found in Sinaiticus, A, C, and the majority of all texts as well as the Syriac Peshitta.

Frequently the names of deity have been shortened or changed in the modern versions. James White and other KJB critics falsely speak of "expansions of piety", as though later scribes added to the name of the Lord Jesus Christ. Yet clearly here Sinaiticus is just as old as Vaticanus, and the new versions have omitted it.

The same thing is seen in many other places. In fact, in the very next verse where we read: "We give thanks to God AND the Father of our Lord Jesus CHRIST", the word Christ is found in Sinaiticus but again omitted by Vaticanus, but this time the modern versions decided to reject Vaticanus and include the word CHRIST. Yet in this same verse the little word AND (kai) is found in Sinaiticus,A, C, the majority, NKJV, and Douay, yet because Vaticanus omits AND, it is not found in the NASB, NIV and ESV. Here we see how the modern scholars go back and forth between these two "oldest and best" even in the same verse!

In 1 Thesalonians 1:1 "Grace unto you and peace FROM GOD OUR FATHER, AND THE LORD JESUS CHRIST" has been entirely omitted by the NASB, NIV and ESV because Vaticanus omits it, yet it is contained in Sinaiticus as well as the majority of all texts.

One more of many examples is found in Acts 20:21 where the KJB says: "testifying ...repentance toward God and faith toward our Lord Jesus CHRIST." CHRIST is found in Sinaiticus and the RSV, ESV, NASB, but omitted in the NRSV and NIV, because not in Vaticanus. Did you notice how the RSV retains it, then the NRSV omits it, and then the next revision of the ESV puts it back again? And the NASB does not agree with the NIV. There is no "science" here folks. It is as scientific and consistent as eenie, meenie, miney, moe.

Colossians 1:7

"As ye also learned of Epaphras our dear fellowservant, who is FOR YOU a faithful minister of Christ."

"who is FOR YOU a faithful minister" is the reading of the Majority as well as the recent UBS Greek text, Sinaiticus correction and the NKJV, NRSV, and the 2001 ESV.

However, again the NASB, NIV, RSV are out of date, having followed Vaticanus which reads: "who is FOR US a faithful minister."

Colossians 1:9

"For this cause we also, since the day we heard it, do not cease to pray for you, AND TO DESIRE that YE MIGHT BE FILLED with the knowledge of his will in all wisdom and spiritual understanding."

"and to desire" is kai aitoumenoi, and is found in all texts except Vaticanus which omits these words. The modern versions this time rejected the Vaticanus omission and followed Sinaiticus and the majority reading by retaining the words.

"to desire THAT YE MIGHT BE FILLED" is exactly what all texts say and is the basic reading of all versions except the NIV. The NIV says: "asking GOD to fill you with the knowledge..." The word GOD does not occur in any text at all. In fact, a look at the NIV concordance shows they have added the word GOD to the New Testament a total of 115 times when not found or implied in the expression. See also Colossians 1:19, 21, and 2:13 where the NIV adds the word GOD.

Colossians 1:12

"Giving thanks unto the Father, which hath made US meet to be partakers of the inheritance of the saints in light."

Several things should be noted about this wonderful verse. First of all "made us meet" is not archaic. "To be made meet" means to be be made suitable or fitting. It is also the reading of the Revised Version, ASV, Tyndale, Geneva, Young's, the Third Millenium Bible and others.

Secondly,"Giving thanks unto THE FATHER" is the reading of all texts except Sinaiticus which says "to GOD the Father", but Vaticanus reads as does the KJB.

Thirdly, instead of "who hath made us meet" (tw hikanwsanti) only Vaticanus adds other words to this verse and says "who CALLED US and made us meet". But again, the modern versions this time discarded the Vaticanus reading. So both Sinaiticus and Vaticanus differ significantly from each other twice in this single verse.

Fourthly "which hath made US meet" is the reading of the majority, A, C and the NKJV, NASB, RV, ASV, and RSV. However, following Sinaiticus/Vaticanus the NIV and ESV say: "who has made YOU qualified..."

Colossians 1:14

"In whom we have redemption THROUGH HIS BLOOD, even the forgiveness of sins."

The important words "through his blood", which express the price paid by the Son of God to redeem guilty sinners, are found in numerous Greek texts, ancient versions and quoted by church fathers.

Marty Shue has written an excellent article dealing with this verse and its textual support. Here is the site which contains many KJB defense articles.

http://www.avdefense.com/throughhisblood.html

"In whom we have redemption THROUGH HIS BLOOD" is omitted by the NASB, NIV, ESV, but is found in Tyndale, Geneva, NKJV, Young's, Italian Diodati, Luther's German, Spanish Reina Valera 1569, 1602 and 1960, and the Russian version.

It is also found in the Modern Greek N.T. used by the Greek Orthodox churches today, the ancient versions of the Syriac Harclean, Philoxenian, some Old Latin, the Vulgate 382 A.D., Slavonic and Armenian.

God either inspired these words or He didn't. Does your Bible in Colossians 1:14 read "redemption THROUGH HIS BLOOD"?

Colossians 1:20

"And, having made peace through the blood OF HIS CROSS, by him to reconcile all things unto himself; BY HIM, I say, whether they be things in earth, or things in heaven."

The second "BY HIM" is found in the Majority of all texts, plus Sinaiticus, A,C, and is in the NASB, RV, ASV, NKJV. However Vaticanus omits "by Him" (di' autou) and so does the NIV, RSV and ESV.

Changed meaning in Colossians 1:25

"Whereof I am made a minister, according to the dispensation of God which is given to me for you, TO FULFIL THE WORD OF GOD."

All the texts read the same here, but the NASB, NIV and ESV have missed the meaning and paraphrased it to mean something else. The apostle Paul was raised up by God to preach to the Gentile nations and bring them into the promised kingdom of Christ. Many Old Testament prophecies foretold that God would gather in the Gentiles, and Paul was being used in this way to "fulfil the word of God".

All texts read "plerosai (fulfil) ton logon tou Theou". To fulfil is used many times in this sense, as whenever events in the life of Christ fulfilled O.T. prophecies, the writers would say: "Then was fulfilled that which was spoken by the Lord in the prophet saying...." Christ also said that He had not come to destroy the law, but to fulfill it.

TO FULFIL THE WORD OF GOD is the correct reading found in the RV, ASV, Tyndale, Geneva, NKJV, Young's and many others. However the NASB, NIV, ESV all miss the point and paraphrase the text. The NASB says: "that I might fully carry out the preaching of the word of God"; the NIV "to preach to you the word of God in its fullness"; while the ESV has "to make the word of God fully known." Think about it. The meaning is not the same as the KJB correctly has it.

Colossians 1:28

"that we may present every man perfect in Christ JESUS."

Here again, the word JESUS is found in the majority of all texts, Sinaiticus correction, Old Latin, Syriac, Gothic, Armenian and Ethiopic ancient versions. It is even found in the Catholic Douay version. But because of Vaticanus, the NASB, NIV and ESV omit the word JESUS.

Colossians 2:2

"That their hearts might be comforted...to the acknowledgement of the mystery of God, AND OF THE FATHER, AND OF Christ."

All the words "and of the Father, and of" are found again in the Majority of all text, Sinaiticus,A, and C. They are found in Lamsa's translation of the Syriac Peshitta, Wycliffe, Spanish Reina Valera and the NKJV.

However, the NASB, NIV and ESV follow Vaticanus and omit all these words. As it stands, Vaticanus is a nonsensical reading, so the NASB, NIV and ESV all have to add words to the text in order for it to make sense.

Colossians 2:9

"Beware lest any man spoil you through philosophy and vain deceit, after the tradition of men, after the rudiments of the world, and not after Christ. For in him dwelleth all the fulness of THE GODHEAD bodily."

James White, a well known King James Bible critic, ignorantly harangues against the use of the word Godhead in the KJB. In his book, The King James Only Controversy, when discussing Colossians 2:9 Mr. White says on page 204: "Yet, the KJV rendering of this verse is probably the least clear of almost all currently available translations. How does one explain what "Godhead" means? Who really uses this term any longer? And what about the fact that the KJV uses "godhead" in other places when it is translating a completely different Greek term?"

Then Mr. White has a chart which shows the NASB rendering of the three passages where the KJB has Godhead in all three. Here are the NASB renderings: Acts 17:29 the Divine Nature (Theios); Romans 1:20 divine nature (theiotes), and Colossians 2:9 Deity (theotes).

As for Mr. White's puzzlement about how one explains what Godhead means, he might try looking at any number of current English dictionaries. Actually the word Godhead is much stronger and more accurate than the "deity" of the NASB, NIV and ESV.

GODHEAD

Merriam Webster's Dictionary " the nature of God especially as existing in three persons -- used with the"

   The American Heritage Dictionary of the English Language: Fourth Edition.  2000.  1. Divinity; godhood. 2. Godhead The Christian God, especially the Trinity.

The Greek lexicons of both Kittel and Thayer's also show Godhead as being one of the meanings of this Greek word used in Colossians 2:9.

The word Godhead implies the Three Persons of the Trinity, whereas the simple word Deity does not. It is more than just coincidence that the KJB has the word Godhead three times in the New Testament.

As for Mr. White's charge that all three Greek words are "completely different", please note that all three have the base word Theos, which by itself means God. Not only does the KJB translate all three of these related words as Godhead, but so also do Tyndale, the Geneva Bible, Webster's 1833 translation, Young's "literal" translation, the KJV 21st Century Version, and the Third Millenium Version.

Mr. White complains about the translation of Godhead here in Colossians 2:9, yet the NKJV, which he recommends in his book as a reliable translation, also has Godhead in Colossians 2:9. Not only do all seven translations just mentioned have Godhead in Colossians 2:9, but so also do Lamsa's 1960 translation of the Syriac Peshitta, the Revised Version, American Standard Version, Darby, New English Bible 1961, Wycliffe, Hebrew Names Version, the World English Bible, Douay-Rheims, Amplified, Green's Modern KJV, and Rotherham's Emphatic Bible. That is a total of at least 19 English bible versions that disagree with Mr. White's "scholarly" opinions.

As for Mr. White's question, "Who really uses this term any longer?", I suggest he get on the internet or read any number of current magazines or books. He will soon learn that it is still a very common word used especially when discussing the Trinity.

I have also heard radio preachers today who use the modern versions talking about the Godhead, little realizing that this word no longer appears in the bible versions they use. Something very damaging happens to the minds of those like James White who criticize the King James Bible - their arguments become silly, hypocritical and even stupid. As a well known KJB defender says, If you mess with the Book, God will mess with your mind.

Mr. White also shows his hypocricy when he says the KJB translates three "completely" different words as Godhead. The NASB, for whom he now works, has two very different words translated as deity - daimonion in Acts 17:18 and theotes in Colossians 2:9 - and also four very different words translated as Divine. In Acts 17:29 theios is translated as "divine nature", in Romans 1:20 Theiotes is "divine nature", in Romans 11:4 kreematismos is translated as "divine response" and in Hebrews 9:1 latreia is translated as "divine service".

The word Godhead in orthodox Christian theology clearly implies the Trinity. If anyone studies their Bible, you know that Christ was God manifest in the flesh (I Timothy 3:16 in the KJB, but not the NASB, NIV). The Lord also said in John 14:10 "Believest thou not that I am in the Father, and the Father in me?...the Father that dwelleth in me, he doeth the works."

The Lord Jesus Christ was conceived of the Holy Ghost (Luke 1:35) and God anointed him with the Holy Ghost and with power (Acts 10:38). In Christ dwells all the fulness of the Godhead bodily.

People like James White have no inspired Bible or sure words of God. They set up their own minds as being the final authority and correct every bible version out there. Mr. White often corrects his own NASB and thinks it too has errors. They don't believe any translation can be the inspired words of God, and since the "originals" no longer exist, they have no inspired Bible and resent the fact that many of us believe we do. They want to be the Final Authority and have you come to them to find out what God really said. It is a big ego trip, easy to get into and very hard to get out of. I feel sorry for all the Christians who have been robbed of the true Holy Bible by these puffed up charlatans.

Colossians 2:11

"In whom also ye are circumcised with the circumcision made without hands, in putting off the body OF THE SINS of the flesh by the circumcision of Christ."

Here the words OF THE SINS (twn hamartiwn) are found in the majority of all Greek texts, Sinaiticus correction, Syriac Peshitta, the Gothic, and in modern Greek.

Mainly because of Vaticanus, the NASB, NIV, ESV omit these words.

Colossians 2:13

"And you, being dead in your sins and the uncircumcision of your flesh, hath HE quickened * together with HIM, having forgiven YOU all trespasses."

This verse presents us with a multitude of conflicting readings, and the modern versions present no unified front. The NIV makes it even more difficult by adding the names of GOD and CHRIST when not found in any text at all.

First of all the NASB and NIV add an extra YOU in this verse by saying "He made YOU alive together with Him" (NASB). This extra YOU comes from Sinaiticus original, A and C. However Vaticanus reads and extra US instead of YOU. Then Sinaiticus was corrected to omit the extra "you" or "us", and follows the many other copies that read as does the KJB, NKJV, and all other Bibles translated from the Traditional text.

It is interesting that the RSV and ESV follow the KJB reading and do not add the extra "you" or "us".

Secondly, where we read "having forgiven YOU all trespasses", this is the reading of Sinaiticus correction, the Syriac Peshitta, Textus Receptus, Wycliffe, Tyndale, Geneva, and the NKJV. But Vaticanus and other Alexandrian texts read: "having forgiven US all trespasses", and so the NASB, NIV and ESV reading.

Thirdly, the NIV plays very loose with the names of God in their paraphrase. Contrary to the NASB, ESV and RSV, the NIV adds GOD and CHRIST to this single verse where no text has them.

The NIV says; "GOD made you alive with CHRIST". The NIV adds the word CHRIST 15 times in the N.T. where it does not occur. See Colossians 1:22; 2:9,10 and 13 for examples.

The NIV continually adds to and takes away from the true words of God in both the Old and New testaments. There are certain expressions where the word God or Lord are implied and in these cases the KJB as well as many other translations express this. However in the NIV what we often find is the word God or Lord being left out of these expressions and instead, the NIV adds the word God, Lord, Jesus or Christ when it is not in any text, be it Hebrew or Greek.

You might want to take a look at the NIV complete concordance. In it you will find by their own documentation that the NIV has added the name of Jesus to the New Testament a total of 336 times when it is not found in the Greek texts they themselves are using. That's three hundred and thirty six times!.

It may also interest you to know that they have omitted the name of God or JEHOVAH # 3378 thirty eight times (38 not translated) when it occurs in the Hebrew texts, and 52 times they have added LORD, or GOD when it is not in the Hebrew text.

The word Elohim, or God found on page 454 of the NIV concordance has not been translated 13 times when found in the Hebrew text and it was placed in the NIV another 52 times when not in the Hebrew for a total of the word GOD being added 104 times when not in the Hebrew and not translated when in the Hebrew text 51 times in the Old Testament.

The NIV has also ADDED the word God 117 times in the New Testament alone when it does not occur in any Greek text nor when it expresses the idea of "God forbid" and they have not translated it three times when it is in their Greek texts.

The NIV has also added the word Lord to the New Testament 6 times when it is not found in any Greek text - for example I Cor. 1:2; and 7:34. If you read the NIV, you are never sure if you are reading God's words or the words of men who feel free to "edit" what God inspired.

All this factual information is found by merely looking at their own NIV complete concordance.

Colossians 2:18

"Let no man beguile you of your reward in a voluntary humility and worshipping of angels, intruding into those things which he hath NOT seen, vainly puffed up by his fleshly mind."

On the other hand, that little word NOT has been removed from the NASB, NIV and ESV versions, which results in the opposite meaning. Has this false teacher seen or NOT SEEN the things of which he speaks?

The reading of NOT SEEN is found in the Majority of all texts, Sinaiticus correction, D correction, C and many others. It is the reading of the Syriac Peshitta, Old Latin, Gothic, and Armenian versions. Even the Catholic Douay, Wycliffe, as well as the Hebrew Names Version follow the KJB, NKJV reading.

The word "not" is omitted by Vaticanus and A, and so we have the opposite meaning given in the NASB, NIV, ESV.

Colossians 2:23 The Superiority of the King James Bible

God is in control of history and His providential hand is clearly seen upon the history and the use of the King James Bible. For the biblical relativist, any remotely possible interpretation is acceptable, even though it directly contradicts another. Each man becomes his own final authority and every man does that which is right in his own eyes. If he doesn't like this particular reading, he then chooses another that he understands as being better or more suitable to his liking; or he will make up his own interpretation.

One of the reasons the King James Bible superseded all previous English versions is because it is right and the others were wrong. I know God used imperfect men to produce His Book, but if I am accused of believing "1611, straight from Heaven", so be it.

We have such an example of the superiority of the KJB in Colossians 2:23, where it has the correct meaning and many other translations did not get it right. I and many others embrace the final authority of the King James Bible and we believe every word. The correct meaning is found in the phrase: "NOT IN ANY HONOUR TO THE SATISFYING OF THE FLESH."

Let's look at the context. The apostle is speaking about false ascetic religions based on a merit system of self discipline, and not on the finished redemptive work of our Lord Jesus Christ.

Colossians 2:20-23 "Wherefore if ye be dead with Christ from the rudiments of the world, why, as though living in the world, are ye subject to ordinances, (Touch not; taste not; handle not; which all are to perish with the using;) after the commandments and doctrines of men? Which things have indeed a shew of wisdom IN WILL WORSHIP, and humility, and neglecting of the body; NOT IN ANY HONOUR TO THE SATISFYING OF THE FLESH."

The Greek reads exactly as the King James Bible has it- "not in any honour to the satisfying of the flesh" (ouk en timee pros pleesmoneen tees sarkos).

The Holy Ghost is telling us here that these man-made religious practices, instead of being an honour to God actually serve to puff up and satisfy the carnal desires of man to make himself acceptable to God by his own efforts. He can then boast over others and to God that by dint of his own will and ability he "made it". This is the religion of the flesh.

Let's now look at some of the many translations that got it wrong and then we'll see some of the others that got it right.

Here is the KJB reading again, so you can compare it to the others.

"Which things have indeed a shew of wisdom in will worship, an humility, and neglecting of the body; NOT IN ANY HONOUR TO THE SATISFYING OF THE FLESH.

Tyndale - "which things have the similitude of wisdom in chosen holiness and humbleness, and in tht they spare not the body, AND DO THE FLESH NO WORSHIP UNTO HIS NEED." (Say what?!)

NKJV - "These things indeed have an appearance of wisdom in self-imposed religion, false humility, and neglect of the body, BUT ARE OF NO VALUE AGAINST THE INDULGENCE OF THE FLESH." (opposite meaning than that of the KJB. The NKJV is a sham version that perverts the meaning of the KJB in hundreds of verses and often agrees with the NASB, NIV.)

NASB - "These are matters which have, to be sure, the appearance of wisdom in self-made religion and self-abasement and severe treatment of the body, BUT ARE OF NO VALUE AGAINST FLESHLY INDULGENCE." (opposite, again.)

NIV - "BUT THEY LACK VALUE IN RESTRAINING SENSUAL INDULGENCE." (again, the opposite meaning.)

ESV - "BUT THEY ARE OF NO VALUE IN STOPPING THE INDULGENCE OF THE FLESH."

Now for the Versions that got it right. Among these are the Geneva Bible, which though the wording is different, carries the same meaning. "which are things of no value, since they pertain to the filling of the flesh."

John Wesley made his own New Testament translation in 1755 and he agrees with the meaning found in the King James Bible. His translation reads: ""Therefore if ye are dead with Christ from the rudiments of the world, why, as living in the world, receive ye ordinances, (Touch not, taste not, handle not: All which are to perish in the using,) after the commandments and doctrines of men? Which things, (Though they have indeed a show of wisdom, in voluntary worship and humility, and not sparing the body,) yet are not of any value, BUT ARE TO THE SATISFYING OF THE FLESH."

Spanish Reina Valera 1909 (not the 1960 version, which has changed a lot of things). "no en alguna honra para el saciar de la carne." (not in any honour for the satisfying of the flesh.)

The Italian Diodati - "per satollar la carne; non in onore alcuno." (are for satisying the flesh; not in any honour at all.")

Geneva Bible - different words, and not as good as the KJB, but the meaning is the same. "which things are of no value, since they pertain to the filling of the flesh."

Douay Version - "but are not to be held in esteem, and lead to the full gratification of the flesh."

Wycliffe - "not in any honour to the fulfilling of the flesh."

Webster's 1833 translation - "Which things have indeed a show of wisdom in will-worship, and humility, and neglecting of the body; not in any honor to the satisfying of the flesh."

Young's "literal" - "not in any honour, unto a satisfying of the flesh."

Other versions that have the same reading as does the KJB are Green's Modern KJV, George Ricker Berry's interlinear N.T., Rotherham's Emphatic Bible and A Conservative Version (ACV)

The King James Bible contains the true meaning intended by God Almighty and the NKJV, NASB, NIV and ESV got it wrong.

Colossians 3 This chapter particularly shows the confusion of the modern versions and the disparity among the "oldest and the best" manuscripts.

Colossians 3:4

"When Christ, who is OUR life, shall appear, then shall ye also appear with him in glory."

OUR life is the majority reading as well as Vaticanus and the Revised Version, American Standard Version, and the NASB, Revised Version, ASV and the RSV.

However Sinaiticus reads YOUR life, and so do the NIV, and ESV.

Colossians 3:6

"For which things sake the wrath of God cometh ON THE CHILDREN OF DISOBEDIENCE."

The whole phrase "on the children of disobedience" is in the Majority, Sinaiticus, A, C, and in the Revised Version, ASV, Douay, and the NEW Revised Standard Version. It is also found in the Old Latin, Syriac Peshitta, Harclean, Coptic Boharic, Gothic and Armenian ancient versions.

But because Vaticanus omits this phrase, it is also omitted by the NASB, NIV, RSV and ESV. Notice that the previous Revised Version and American Standard Versions included it, then the NASB omitted it. Also note that the previous RSV omitted it, then the NRSV included it, and then the ESV omitted it again! Now that is sound, consistent scholarship, isn't it?!

Colossians 3:13

"Forbearing one another, and forgiving one another, if any man have a quarrel against any: even as CHRIST forgave you, so also do ye."

The reading of CHRIST is in the Majority of all manuscripts, C, D2, Sinaiticus correction, and a multitude of ancient versions including the Syriac Peshitta, Harclean, Coptic Sahidic and Boharic, the Gothic, and Ethiopic versions. It is also that of the Spanish Reina Valera, Diodati, Luther and the Russian Bibles.

Sinaiticus original, before it was corrected to read as the KJB said "even as GOD IN CHRIST forgave you."

Primarily because Vaticanus reads "even as THE LORD forgave you" the NASB, NIV and ESV have the Lord instead of Christ. The Vulgate also reads "the Lord" as do these modern versions. I mention this because many MV defenders like to falsely accuse the KJB of following the Latin Vulgate (which it doesn't), yet they ignore the instances where their versions agree with the Vulgate. A careful look at the previous verse shows that Vaticanus alone omitted the word HOLY, from the phrase "holy and beloved", yet they chose not to follow Vaticanus there. See how "scientific" this whole thing is?

Colossians 3:15

"And let the peace OF GOD rule in your hearts..."

GOD is the majority reading, and Sinaiticus correction, the Spanish, Diodati, and Luther, but Vaticanus reads "the peace of CHRIST" and so do the NASB, NIV and ESV. Again, as a side note, so does the Latin Vulgate.

Colossians 3:16

"Let the word OF CHRIST dwell in you richly in all wisdom."

CHRIST again is the majority reading, along with Vaticanus and this time the NASB, NIV and ESV follow the KJB reading. However the NASB, ESV footnotes tell us that some manuscripts read GOD (A), and others read THE LORD (Sinaiticus original), just so we won't get too comfortable with thinking God's words are settled and sure.

Colossians 3:16

"singing WITH GRACE in your hearts TO THE LORD."

"WITH GRACE in your hearts to THE LORD" is in the majority of texts, as well as the corrections of C and D, plus the Old Latin, Spanish, Diodati, and Luther.

Again the NASB, NIV and ESV follow the Alexandrian texts which read: "with THANKSGIVING in your hearts TO GOD." Oops, so does the Latin Vulgate :-)

Colossians 3:17

"do all in the name of the LORD JESUS, giving thanks to God and the Father by him."

This verse again reveals the general confusion of the Alexandrian texts, upon which many modern versions are based. Instead of "the Lord Jesus", which is the majority reading as well as that of Vaticanus, the manuscripts of A and C read "Jesus Christ" omitting Lord and adding Christ, while Sinaiticus says: "the Lord Jesus Christ". Now what was that James White said about expansions of deity?

Colossians 3:22

"Servants, obey in all things your masters ACCORDING TO THE FLESH (kata sarka); NOT WITH EYESERVICE, (mee en ophthalmodouleiais) as menpleasers; but in singleness of heart, fearing GOD."

I have highlighted a couple of phrases here "according to the flesh" and "not with eyeservice", which is literally what all texts say, in order to show how the vaunted NASB is not nearly as accurate or literal as they like to tell us.

" your masters according to the flesh" is the correct reading and is found in the Revised Version, ASV, NKJV, Geneva, Young's and many others. However the NASB paraphrases this as "your masters ON EARTH", while the NIV, which is almost always a paraphrase, and the ESV have "your EARTHLY masters."

"not with eyeservice" is again literally what the texts say and is the reading of the RV, ASV, NKJV, RSV and even the ESV. You can even see the Greek word for "eye" from which we get the word ophthalmologist (Greek - ophthalmos + service - douleiais). However again the NASB paraphrases this as "not with EXTERNAL service, as those who MERELY please men", while the NIV in typical fashion says: "do it not only when their eye is on you, and to win their favor."

It is the job of a translator to TRANSLATE, not to explain what they think the words mean - that is the job of the Bible teacher, but not that of the translator. The NIV is a comic book bible, based on the wrong texts and frequently with the wrong meaning.

The main textual difference in this verse concerns the part about "fearing GOD." GOD is the reading of the majority of all texts, as well as P46 which predates Vaticanus. God is also the reading of Sinaiticus correction, the NKJV, Spanish Reina Valera, Diodati, Luther, Hebrew Names Version and even the Douay Rheims, to name just a few.

However Vaticanus reads "fearing THE LORD" and so do the NASB, NIV and ESV; and so does the Latin Vulgate! There is no "scientific method" or consistency to the textual changes made in most modern versions. The only consistency seems to be, if it is different than the time tested King James Bible, then they put it in.

Colossians 4:8 (7-8 for context)

"All my state shall Tychicus declare unto you, who is a beloved brother, and a faithful minister and fellowservant in the Lord: Whom I have sent unto you for the same purpose, that HE MIGHT KNOW YOUR estate, and comfort your hearts."

"that HE might know YOUR estate" is the reading of not only the Majority of all remaining Greek texts, but also of P46 which is the oldest we have, Sinaiticus correction, and C. This is also the reading of Wycliffe, NKJV, Tyndale, Geneva, Spanish Reina Valera, Diodati, Old Latin, Syriac Peshitta, Harclean, Ethiopian, Gothic, Boharic and Georgian ancient versions. It is also the reading of the Hebrew Names Version, Douay and the New English Bible, which usually follows the Westcott-Hort texts.

The Alexandrian texts go all over the place here, with most modern versions, but not all, following Vaticanus. Vaticanus and A, along with the NASB, NIV and ESV read the opposite with: "I have sent him to you for this very purpose, that YOU may know about OUR circumstances", instead of HE might know of YOUR estate.

Colossians 4:12

"Epaphras, who is one of you, a servant of CHRIST, saluteth you."

CHRIST, standing alone, is the Majority reading, as well as P46 (the oldest) D, Syriac Peshitta, Harclean, Gothic, Ethiopic ancient versions, as well as again the NKJV, NEB and Hebrew Names Bible.

However, Vaticanus and Sinaiticus add an extra Jesus and say: "a servant of Christ Jesus."

Colossians 4:13

"For I bear him record, that he hath A GREAT ZEAL for you..."

A GREAT ZEAL (Zeelon - looks like zeal) is in the majority of texts, but the Alexandrian manuscripts have a really silly reading here. The NASB, NIV had to change what it literally says to avoid the ridiculous. Their texts say "who has great PAIN for you" (ponon). This word is found only three times in the Traditional Text, all in Revelation, where it speaks of those who gnawed their tongues for pain, and neither shall there be any more pain.

So the NASB says: "He has DEEP CONCERN for you"; while the NIV in typical paraphrase, says: "he is working hard for you"; which actually is closer in meaning to the KJB/Majority text.

Colossians 4:15

"Salute the brethren which are in Laodicea, and Nymphas, and the church which is in HIS (autou) house."

"HIS house" again is the Majority reading, and that of Lamsa's Peshitta, Douay, and all Bibles translated from the Traditional Texts, which include Tyndale 1525, Coverdale 1535, Bishops' bible 1568, the Geneva Bible 1599, Darby, Youngs', and the NKJV. However Vaticanus says HER house (autees) and so do the NASB, NIV, RSV, NRSV, Holman and ESV, but Sinaiticus, A and C read THEIR HOUSE (autwn) and so also do the Revised Version 1881, Weymouth, Bible in Basic English 1960, and the American Standard Version of 1901. So, is it his, her or their house? "Who knows or cares? They're all the inspired word of God", right? (This is the attitude of so many Christians today.)

Colossians 4:18

"Grace be with you. AMEN."

The final word AMEN is found in the Majority of all texts and even in Lamsa's Peshitta and the Catholic Douay versions, but the Alexandrian texts omit the word and so do the NASB, NIV and ESV.

In this short epistle, we have seen that the "oldest and best" Sinaiticus and Vaticanus, upon which most modern versions are based, disagree with each other in the following verses - Colossians 1:2, 7, 12, 20, 28; 2:2, 7, 11, 13, 18, 20; 3:4, 5, 6, 12, 13, 15, 16, 22; and 4:8, 12, and 15.

We have also observed that the versions which reject the traditional Greek texts, don't always agree with each other as to which reading to follow nor how to translate them. This confusion contributes to the modern view that we have no sure words of God and everything is in a state of flux and uncertainty.

When the modern version proponent says: "The Bible is the inspired word of God" (which you hear less and less these days) he is not referring to anything you can hold in your hands and believe with all your heart. No, he is referring to some mystical bible he has never seen, because it doesn't exist except in his own mind.

On the other hand, the King James Bible believer trusts that God has been faithful to His promises to preserve His infallible words and that we can believe the Book when it says: "Thus saith the LORD...."

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