Introduction: What is Man
Have You Wondered - Part 1
Have You Wondered - Part 2
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Eccl. 12:7
Then shall the dust return to the earth as it was; and the spirit (7307 -
"ruwach") shall return unto God who gave it.
There are certain words that recur many times in the Hebrew of the Old
Testament, and their equivalents in Greek in the New Testament. One of these
words is "ruwach" which appears 390 times under 18 various renderings. But the
principle meanings of the word are "breath", 28 times; "wind", 91 times;
"spirit", 235 times. Many of the different renderings occur but once. It is
noteworthy that not once in all the 390 occurrences is "ruach" translated
"soul". Another important word is "nephesh". There are 37 various renderings
of this word, and the modern translator would justify the translation in most
of the occurrences.
But this word has outstanding meanings which are very important. It is
translated "life", 99 times; "soul", 456 times. Never is it translated
"spirit". THROUGH SIN, THE SPIRIT OF MAN, THAT PART OF MAN'S NATURE THAT WAS
CAPABLE OF TAKING IN KNOWLEDGE OF GOD, BECAME DORMANT OR DEAD. THAT IS, THE
SPIRIT BECAME SPIRITUALLY DEAD. He must enter the condition of harmony with
God by a new birth - being "born-again". Judged as a lawbreaker before the bar
of God, he must be declared righteous or justified; regarded as one who has
been defiled by sin, he must be made holy, or sanctified.
Within man, then, there dwells the spirit, which, because of sin, has fallen
under the subjection of man's corrupted body and soul. There are indications
in Scripture of the presence of a spirit in man. Romans 8:15 tells us that in
fallen man there is "the spirit (4151 - "pneuma") of bondage again to fear."
In Psalm 32:2 David calls the man who is in fellowship with God a man "in
whose spirit (7307 - "ruwach") there is no guile." In other words, here are
evidences of a former relationship with God: first, a FEARFULNESS IN MAN, not
merely physical fear but fear of the unknown and unseen; secondly, A TENDENCY
TO HIDE from moral and spiritual light, a tendency to hide from a holy God,
who has put in man a sense of moral responsibility. This sense, which is
deeper than the mind, is that which distinguishes man from the beast. This
spiritual element makes the soul of a man and the soul of a beast two entirely
different entities. We see the truth of this in the fall of man. As soon as
Adam disobeyed God and obeyed the solicitations of the serpent, immediately he
was afraid and saught to hide himself from the presence of God. These emotions
of fear and of guile were produced out of his spirit, which had become
orphaned and estranged from God. Instead of being confident and loving the
light of God, man's spirit became bound by fear and guile. These are sins of
the fallen spirit.
Not only does Scripture show that the spirit is a realm in man deeper than the
mind, but also that his spirit is said to be able to express itself apart from
the human mind. "My spirit (4151 - "pneuma") prayeth, but my understanding [or
mind] is unfruitful." (I Cor. 14:14)
In Romans 8 we see that by the Holy Spirit, God can convey to us the wonderful
knowledge that we are God's children through our faith in Jesus Christ. "The
Spirit (4151 - "pneuma") himself bearth witness with our spirit (4151 -
"pneuma"), that we are children of God." (Rom. 8:16) The Holy Spirit can
witness with the human spirit concerning our relationship to God. This is not
merely feeling a "breeze" on our spirit, but a transference of divine
knowledge from the Holy Spirit to the regenerated human spirit. God's will is
for the body to be separated from all sin, sanctified, and motivated by the
indwelling of God's Spirit. (Romans 6; 8;11; 12:1-2; I Cor. 3:16)
8. If you believe that Adam was a soul and a body, which part sinned, the soul
or the body?
The complete tripartite being, body, soul, and spirit, became defiled by sin.
The first thing God did for Adam and Eve was to kill an animal and cloth them
with the skin; the shedding of blood to cover their sin, symbolic of Jesus
blood. See answers 1 through 7.
9. If you answer, "The soul", why must the body suffer?
Again, all three, the body, the soul, and the spirit have become defiled by
sin. All three must be redeemed by the Blood of Jesus.
10. If you answer, "The body", why must the soul be saved?
Again, all three, the body, the soul, and the spirit have become defiled by
sin. All three must be redeemed by the Blood of Jesus.
11. If man gets to heaven by dying, does that not prove that sin and death are
a blessing rather than, as the Bible says, a curse?
No. Man need not have died to live in the presence of God. Adam and Eve,
before they sinned, walked with God in the Garden. God's presence withdrew
from the defiled Earth.
12. What penalty was imposed on Adam for his sin - death, or continued
existence elsewhare?
Death does NOT mean non-existence. Spiritual death is separation from God. The
moment Adam sinned, he became spiritually dead, separated from God. See
answers 1 through 7.
13. Was there one penalty for the body and another for the soul?
No, Death was the penalty for all three; body, soul and spirit. Physical death
was the penalty for the body. The soul and the spirit died spiritually. Again
death does NOT mean non-existence, but separation from God's presence.
14. Did God even conceive of everlasting torment in hellfire?
"Everlasting torment in hellfire" was never meant for mankind. It was the
destination of Satan and his fallen angels. If mankind goes there, it is by
his own free choice. Matt. 25:41 (KJV) says, "Depart from me (separation from
God), ye cursed, into everlasting fire, PREPARED FOR THE DEVIL AND HIS
ANGELS."
15. According to Paul, what are the wages of sin?
Death; both physical AND SPIRITUAL. See answers 1 through 7.
16. Does Paul mention everlasting torment in hellfire?
Paul is not dealing with the subject of physical death in Romans chapter 6,
therefore, Rom. 6:7 CANNOT be used as a biblical text to prove or disprove the
existence of "hellfire". This chapter, when read in context, is dealing with
the Christian's power, or victory, over living a life ruled by sin. Verse 11
states that we are to consider ourselves dead to the life of sin and alive to
a life ruled by Christ Jesus.
II Cor. 5:17 (KJV)
Therefore if ANY MAN be IN Christ, he is a new creature (spiritually alive):
old things (spiritual death) are passed away; behold, all things become new.
II Peter 1:4 (KJV)
Whereby are given unto us exceeding great and precious promises; that by these
ye might be partakers of the divine nature (spiritual life - the new
creature), having escaped the corruption that is in the world through lust.
17. If hellfire really does exist, why would a person suffer for all eternity
to pay for only a short lifetime of sin? Is God`s justice less than man's?
Whoever wrote this question does not fully understand the seriousness of sin
to God. Neither do they have a clear understanding of the nature of God.
Volumes could be written to answer this question. In short, the fire of
Gehenna is eternal because it will never satisfy the justice of God, only the
blood of Jesus does. God's holiness, justice, and mercy must all be considered
to fully answer this question.
18. Did the faithful men of old believe that they had a soul that went either
to heaven or to a fiery hell?
Historians tell us that the Jewish doctrine, at the time of Christ, taught
that there was a place of eternal punishment, and that place was "Gehenna".
The Rabbinical Schools of Shammai and Hillel, immediately before the time of
Christ taught it. This is important, for when Jesus used terms, unless he
added a qualification, they would be understood according to their
contemporary usage.
Jesus taught his disciples in Luke 16:22-28 that there was a place of torment.
Many New Testament truths were hidden from the Old Testament faithful. Why do
you suppose that Israel failed to recognize Jesus as their promised Messiah?
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Luke 16:22-28 - ABRAHAM'S BOSOM - THE BIBLE TEACHING
If at death people simply lapse into a state of nonexistence or
unconsciousness, THEN WHAT IS THE POINT OF LUKE 16:22-28? Are we to conclude
that Jesus was teaching something based entirely on FALSEHOOD - something that
is wholly untrue in every way? If the rich man and Lazarus were not conscious
after death, then the answer would have to be yes. Scholars have noted that
when Jesus taught people using parables or stories, HE ALWAYS USED REAL-LIFE
SITUATIONS. For example; a prodigal son returned home after squandering his
money; a man found a buried treasure in a field, hid it again, and sold
everything he had in order to buy that field; a king put on a wedding feast
for his son; a slave owner traveled abroad and then returned home to his
slaves; a man constructed a vineyard, leased it out to others, but had
difficulty collecting what they owed him; and so on. All of these were common
occurrences in biblical days.
Clearly, Jesus never illustrated His teaching with a false-hood. We must
conclude that Luke 16 portrays a real-life situation and should be taken as
solid evidence for conscious existence after death. Any other interpretation
makes an absurdity of the text.
* * *
Do you believe Jesus illustrated His teachings with falsehoods?
Since Jesus was ABSOLUTELY CONSISTENT in using real-life situations to
illustrate His teachings, what does this tell you about His words in Luke 16?
If the Watchtower's interpretation of Luke 16 is correct, then how can we NOT
conclude that Jesus was being utterly deceptive with His words - since at face
value they indicate conscious existence after death?
* * *
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19. What is the true hope for the dead?
John 5:29 speaks of two resurrections. One to life the other to damnation or
as the NWT says, "judgement". Rev. 20:10-15 details this damnation of the
wicked. Verse 10 says that the devil, the beast and the false prophet were
"cast into the lake of fire and brimstone". This lake of fire is understood to
be Gehenna and thus is different from the place of torment (hades) mentioned
in the Luke 16 passage. Rev. 20:14-15 (KJV) says, "And death and hell (hades)
were cast into the lake of fire. This is the second death. And WHOSOEVER was
not found written in the book of life was cast into the lake of fire."
20. If there is no immortal soul, how do some (144,000) come to reign with
Christ in the heavens?
In the first place, I do not believe that the ones who reign with Christ are
limited to only 144,000. I do not believe "the anointed class" and the "other
sheep" have different future assignments in eternity. All will rule and reign
with Christ. I do not agree that the "times of the gentiles" have already
closed. Therefore, ALL believers in Jesus Christ belong to the church and are
"the bride of Christ" mentioned in Revelation. This question is a poor example
of clear thinking because it tends to contradict the other 19 questions which
are:
(1) Designed to prove that man does not HAVE a soul, but instead IS a soul.
(2) Designed to lead a person's thinking in the wrong direction with the end
result that they will make themselves look foolish if they believe that man HAS
an immortal soul. In answering these questions, I did not follow the author's
intended line of reasoning.
Luke 20:38 - THE GOD OF THE LIVING
In Luke 20:38, we read of Jesus' words to the Sadducees regarding the O.T.
saints Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob: "He [God] is not the God of the dead, but OF
THE LIVING; for all live to Him" (NASB, emphasis added).
* * Antiquities xviii, 1, 4 * *
According to first-century Jewish historian Flavius Josephus, "the doctrine of
the Sadducees is this: that souls die with the bodies". And in Luke 20:38,
Jesus contradicts the view of the Sadducees. In effect, He is saying,
"Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob, though they died many years ago, are actually
living today. For God, who calls Himself the God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob,
is not the God of the dead but of the living." Jesus' words clearly indicate
that these O.T. patriarchs are living AT THE PRESENT MOMENT, even though they
"died" physically many years ago. Notice the words at the end of Luke 20:38;
"for all LIVE to Him (emphasis added). What does this mean? Bible Scholar
Anthony Hoekema answers:
"Though the dead seem to us to be completely non exixtent, they are actually
living as far as God is concerned. Note that the tense of the word for live is
not FUTURE (which might suggest only that the these dead will live at the time
of their resurrection) but PRESENT, teaching us that they are living now. This
holds true not only for the patriarchs but for all who have died. To suggest,
now, that Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob are non existent between death and the
resurrection violates the thrust of these words, and implies that God is, with
respect to these patriarchs, for a long period of time the God of the dead
rather than the God of the living."
* * *
Why do you think Jesus referred to God as the "God...of the living" in
reference to Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob (Luke 20:38)?
Why do you think Jesus said of the dead that "all LIVE" to God, using a
present tense word for "live"--thereby indicating PRESENT-TIME living as
opposed to a FUTURE living?
* * *
Luke 23:46 - "INTO THY HANDS I COMMIT MY SPIRIT"
In Luke 23:46 we read these words Jesus uttered as He died on Calvary: Jesus
called out with a loud voice, 'Father, into your hands I commit my spirit.'
When he had said this, he breathed his last."
* * check Vine's Dictionary * *
The word translated "spirit" in this verse is "pneuma". This word can have a
wide range of meanings--including "wind", "breath", "life-spirit", "soul",
"the spirit as a part of the human personality", "the spirit of God", "the
spirit of Christ", and "the Holy Spirit".
Now, many of the above meanings are disqualified as possible contenders for
Luke 23:46 by virtue of the context. It doesn't make any sense for Jesus to
commend His "wind" or His "breath" to the Father. Nor does it fit the context
for Jesus to commit "the spirit of God" or "the Holy Spirit" to the Father.
In fact, the only meanings of "pneuma" that make any sense in this context
are "soul" and "spirit as a part of the human personality". It seems clear
from a plain reading of the passage that Jesus is committing His HUMAN
IMMATERIAL SOUL OR SPIRIT to the Father. And since Christ was not raised from
the dead until three days after His crucifixion, we must conclude that Jesus'
human soul or spirit went directly to the Father's presence in heaven while
His body lay in the tomb.
* * *
Don't you think that a person reading this verse for the first time, without
having consulted any Watchtower literature, would conclude that the verse
deals with committing Christ's IMMATERIAL soul or spirit to the Father?
* * *
2 Corinthians 5:6-8 - ABSENT FROM THE BODY; HOME WITH THE LORD
In 2 Corinthians 5:6-8 we read, "Therefore being always of good courage, and
knowing that WHILE WE ARE AT HOME IN THE BODY WE ARE ABSENT FROM THE LORD --
for we walk by faith, not by sight--we are of good courage, I say, and prefer
rather TO BE ABSENT FROM THE BODY AND TO BE AT HOME WITH THE LORD" (NASB,
emphasis added).
In the Greek text of this passage, the phrases "at home in the body" and
"absent from the Lord" are both PRESENT TENSE (which indicates continuing
action). We could paraphrase Paul in this way: "Therefore, being always of
good courage, and knowing that while we are CONTINUING TO BE AT HOME IN THE
BODY we are CONTINUING TO BE ABSENT FROM THE LORD." By contrast, the latter
part of the passage contains two "aorist infinitives": "absent from the
body" and "at home with the Lord." Such aorists indicate a sense of "once-for-
all". We might pataphrase it, "We are of good courage, I say, and prefer
rather to be ...ABSENT FROM THE [MORTAL, PERISHABLE] BODY and to be ONCE-FOR-
ALL AT HOME WITH THE LORD." Regarding all this, scholar, Anthony Hoekema
comments, "Whereas the present tenses in verse 6 picture a continuing at-
homeness in the body and a continuing away-from-homeness as to the Lord, the
aorist infinitives of verse 8 point to a once-for-all momentary happening.
What can this be? There is only one answer: DEATH, which is an immediate
transition from being at home in the body to being away from home as to the
body. THE MOMENT A CHRISTIAN DIES, HE OR SHE IS IMMEDIATELY IN THE PRESENCE OF
CHRIST. It is also noteworthy that the Greek word "pros" is used for "with"
in the phrase "be at home WITH the Lord." This word suggests very close (face-
to-face) fellowship or intimate relationships. Paul thereby indicates that the
fellowship he expects to have with Christ immediately following his physical
death will be one of great intimacy.
* * *
What do you think is meant by the phrase "to be absent from the body and to be
at home with the Lord" (2 Cor. 5:8)?
Did you know that the Greek word translated "with" (in the phrase "to be
absent from the body and to be at home WITH the Lord") is one that indicates
intimate fellowship?
* * *
From the above Scripture passages, it is clear that human beings do indeed
possess an immaterial nature that survives physical death. And this immaterial
nature enjoys CONSCIOUS existence following death.
Philippians 1:21-23 - TO DEPART AND BE WITH CHRIST
In Phil. 1:21-23 we read, "for to me, to live is Christ and to die is gain. If
I am to go on living in the body, this will mean fruitful labor for me. Yet
what shall I choose...I am torn between the two: I desire to depart and be
with Christ, which is better by far." Now, here's the question that
immediately comes to mind: HOW COULD PAUL REFER TO DEATH AS "GAIN" IF DEATH
MEANT NONEXISTENCE? What the apostle meant by gain is very clear from the
context, for he defines it as departing the physical body TO BE WITH CHRIST.
Being with Christ is far better, Paul says, than remaining in the physical
body. (Being in a state of nonexistence, however, cannot be said to be far
better by any stretch of the imagination.) It is important to note that Phil.
1:21-23 is not speaking of a future resurrection at which time Paul will be
with Christ. Rather Paul is saying that the very moment after physical death
occurs he will be with Christ. How do we know this? It's clear from the Greek
text. Without going into too much detail, suffice it to say that an aorist
infinitive ("to depart") is linked by a SINGLE ARTICLE with a present
infinitive ("TO BE with Christ"). The infinitives thus belong together: The
single article ties the two infinitives together, so that the actions depicted
by the two infinitives are to be considered two aspects of the same thing, or
two sides of the same coin. So Paul is saying that the very moment after he
departs the body or dies, he will be with Christ in heaven.
* * *
How could Paul refer to death as gain if death meant nonexistence?
Doesn't it seem to you that Paul defines what he means by GAIN by his words in
verse 23: "I desire to DEPART AND BE WITH CHRIST, which is better by far"?
Did you know that the construction of the Greek text in verse 23 indicate that
DEPARTING (dying) and BEING WITH CHRIST occurs immediately after the DEPARTING
takes place?
* * *
I Thessalonians 4:13-17 - "THE DEAD IN CHRIST SHALL RISE FIRST"
In I Thess. 4:13-17 (NASB) we read:
"But we do not want you to be uninformed, brethren, about THOSE WHO ARE
ASLEEP, that you may not grieve, as do the rest who have no hope. For if qwe
believe that Jesus died and rose again, even so GOD WILL BRING WITH HIM THOSE
WHO HAVE FALLEN ASLEEP IN JESUS. For this we say to you by the word of the
Lord, that we who are alive, and remain until the coming of the Lord shall not
precede THOSE WHO HAVE FALLEN ASLEEP. For the Lord Himself will descend from
heaven
WITH A SHOUT
WITH THE VOICE OF THE ARCHANGEL, AND
WITH THE TRUMPET OF GOD;
and the DEAD IN CHRIST shall rise first. Then we who are alive and remain
shall be caught up together with them in the clouds to meet the Lord in the
air, and thus we shall always be with the Lord.
Note that though the term "sleep" is often used to denote death in Scripture,
it is never used in reference to the immaterial part of man. The term "sleep"
is always applied in Scripture to the body alone, since in death the body
takes on the APPEARANCE of one who is asleep. But the term "soul sleep" is
never found in scripture. And nowhere does Scripture state that the soul ever
passes into a state of unconsciousness. Verse 14 in this passage indicates
that Paul, while using the metaphor "sleep" to describe physical death,
clearly understood that when Jesus comes again, He will bring WITH (Greek:
"sun") Him those whose bodies are "sleeping". To be more explicit, the soul
and spirits of those who are now with Christ in glory 2 Cor. 5:8; Phil. 1:22-
23) will be reunited with their resurrection bodies (I Cor. 15); that is, they
will be clothed with immortality, incorruptibility, and exemption from
physical decay. The Greek word "sun" indicates that they (i.e., their souls
and spirits) will be in a "side by side" position with Christ, and their
physical bodies that are "sleeping" will in that instant be raised to
immortality and reunited with their spirits.
* * *
According to I Thess. 4:14, who will Jesus bring with Him when He comes again?
Do these believers have bodies yet?
(Obviously not, since they don't receive their resurrection bodies until verse
16.)
If Jesus is bringing some believers with Him (verse 14), but they don't have
resurrection bodies yet (verse 16), then doesn't this mean that the immaterial
souls/spirits of those believers are with Jesus and will be reunited to their
bodies at the resurrection?
* * *
Revelation 6:9, 10 - SOULS UNDER GOD'S ALTAR
In Revelation 6:9, 10 we read, "And when He broke the fifth seal, I saw
underneath the altar THE SOULS OF THOSE WHO HAD BEEN SLAIN because of the word
of God, and because of the testimony which they had maintained; and they cried
out with a loud voice, saying, 'How long, O Lord, holy and true, wilt Thou
refrain from judging and avenging our blood on those who dwell on the earth?'"
(NASB, emphasis added).
In this passage it is impossible for "souls" to refer to living beings, for
then the text would read, "I saw underneath the altar the LIVING BEINGS of
those who had been slain". Notice that the souls exist and are conscious
despite the fact that they had been physically slain. How do we know that they
are conscious? Scripture says that they "cried out" to God and are spoken to
in turn. THAT WHICH IS UNCONSCIOUS CANNOT CRY OUT OR BE SPOKEN TO.
* * *
Isn't it impossible for the word "soul" to refer to living beings in
Revelation 6:9, 10 since the text would then read, "I saw underneath the altar
the LIVING BEINGS of those who had been slain"?
Since these souls had been physically slain--and since they are obviously
conscious in God's presence--doesn`t this indicate that they have an
immaterial nature that survived their physical slaying death)?
* * *
Introduction: What is Man
Have You Wondered - Part 1
Have You Wondered - Part 2
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